Live Q&A Follow-up - Satan and Pride

I am almost through the questions we did not have time to answer at the Live Question and Answer night on September 29. Here is another question: If heaven is perfect and there is not sin there, how did Satan have the sin of pride which got him thrown out of heaven?

This question, like the other question, is a good question. Sometimes good questions are not easy to answer. We do have a good sense that at some point Satan had to sin. Some scholars have offered Isaiah 14 and Ezekiel 28 as expressions of that very sin. But not all scholars would agree those passages are directly referring to Satan and his fall. So though they might give us some idea of what the sin of pride looks like, it may not be an actual reference to Satan.

So how did Satan have the sin of pride? I do not believe that the Bible takes the time to deal with that question. The Bible was written to help us live in a world that is marked by Satan and his sin of pride. But given the validity of the question let me offer a suggestion from Augustine. In his book The City of God, Augustine wrote, “For when the will abandons what is above itself, and turns to what is lower, it becomes evil – not because that is evil to which it turns, but because the turning itself is wicked.” What I am suggesting is that perhaps Satan allowed himself to be captured more by the wonder of himself as a creation of God than he was with the God who created him. Pride came into his life because he got caught up in his goodness, but forgot that goodness was a gift of God. Pride came because of failing to focus on the One who was the completeness of goodness. God’s creations are amazing. But they will always be lower than God. When we forget that, we will be in big trouble. I would suggest that Satan got caught up in himself instead of God and the whole of creation has paid ever since. Even in the perfection of heaven, turning attention from lesser good can bring the evil of pride.

Live Q&A Follow-up - Pacifism

One more question from the September 29 Live Question and Answer night: should Christians be pacifists?

This question deals with a subject that I am not well versed on in any measure. I do know that a number of serious, thoughtful people have come to the conclusion that we should embrace such an approach to life. In contrast I do know other mature believers who would disagree with the idea that Christians must be pacifists.  Given that this issue is not one that I have study in depth in the past, I thought it might be wise to offer three links to other people who obviously have thought through the subject. If you have questions after reading their thoughts, please comment below.

Link #1 - Five Biblical Reasons Why Christians Should Be Pacifists

Link #2 – Five Reasons Why Pacifism is Not a Biblical Approach to Ethics

Link #3 – Must Christians Be Pacifists

Live Q&A Follow-up - Euthanize a Pet?

Another question from the Live Question and Answer night: Do you believe it is right to euthanize pets? Is it right to take their life just because they suffer?

To answer this question I think it is wise to remember Genesis 1:26-28:

Then God said, "Let us make man in our image, after our likeness. And let them have dominion over the fish of the sea and over the birds of the heavens and over the livestock and over all the earth and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth." ²⁷ So God created man in his own image, in the image of God he created him; male and female he created them. ²⁸ And God blessed them. And God said to them, "Be fruitful and multiply and fill the earth and subdue it and have dominion over the fish of the sea and over the birds of the heavens and over every living thing that moves on the earth."

As a part of our creation as humanity, God gave us responsibility to rule over creation. The idea of the word translated dominion is that of absolute mastery. God has given us the responsibility over creation as listed in those verses. Please note carefully though, we do not have absolutely right over ourselves or other people.

If we take into consideration the responsibility God has given us to rule or have dominion, then I think it is possible to suggest when it comes to our pets that God has placed them into our responsibility in manner similar to God being responsible for our lives (Job 1:20-21 teaches that God is rightfully sovereign over our beginnings and endings). If that suggestion is accurate, then I would offer that we do have the right to make decisions about the ending of the life of a pet who is suffering. We have been given the responsibility to make, in the case of the pet, that kind of decision. We do not have the right to make that decision about ourselves or other people, because God has not given us that responsibility – that is His responsibility.

Live Q&A Follow-up - Cremation

I am trying to answer a few more of the questions left over from the Live Question and Answer night on September 29. The question for this post is: Cremation – how should we view it – is it biblical? how should we discuss this option with others?

To answer the first part of the question in terms of whether or not cremation is biblical, two things should be noted. First, there are at least three examples in the Old Testament of a type of cremation – Achan in Joshua 7:25, Saul in 1 Samuel 31:12, and the King of Edom in Amos 2:1. Though cremation took place, each of those examples is tied in some way to God’s judgment and curse. Second, there is no direct command that I am aware of that prohibits cremation. So if we just give consideration to the biblical data, we can say on occasion cremation took place, but it is not something that was promoted and the more normal practice was burial. Why was that the case?

To answer the why question we should probably consider history and tradition for a moment. Cremation was a normal practice for Greeks and Romans, yet the catacombs in Rome suggest that the early Christians buried their dead. Christian grave sites, cemeteries, which comes from a word that means sleeping places, were understood o reflect a belief in the future resurrection.

Why did the early church adopt that view in a culture pro-cremation? It seems that early church believed that cremation was associated with pagan rituals and beliefs that were unbiblical. As such the most God-honoring way to handle the body of a Christ follower who died was to bury the body in anticipation of the future resurrection. As result for most of church history, burial was the common method.

Cremation entered into American culture on December 6, 1876 when Baron Joseph Henry Louis Charles De Palm was cremated in Washington, Pennsylvania. Baron De Palm was part of the Theosophical Society, a group that was influenced by many things other than God and the Bible. The cremation ceremony included readings from Charles Darwin and Hindu sacred writings.

So where does that leave us? Well, I cannot say that the practice of cremation is unbiblical, in that it is not directly prohibited in Scripture. But, cremation does have a tainted history and was not associated with God in a positive manner. Personally, I believe it might be wiser for a follower of the Lord Jesus to be buried rather than cremated.

To address the second part of the question in terms of how do you talk to others about cremation and burial, I would suggest you start with recognizing it is difficult to talk about things related to death. Then I would simply look at the history of cremation and its biblical connection.  Then I would probably ask the question:  Does my burial method communicate any message about the hope of the gospel? Should the resurrection have any impact on how I am buried? Please note, I am not saying that cremation prevents a person from being resurrected in any way. But I do see value in thinking about the how a burial may make a statement about the resurrection and not simply think about the economics of cremation versus a full casket burial.

Live Q&A Follow up - Pentecostals and Tongues

Here is another question that we did not have time to answer at the Live Question and Answer night on September 29: Why do Pentecostals seem to the gift of tongues and we don’t?

In trying to answer this question, I sense the possibility of the answer generating follow-up questions. Please either use the comment section of the blog site or bring your question to the next Live Question and Answer night on October 27 from 6 to 7:30 pm.

To answer the question I think we need to start by explaining the Classical Pentecostal understanding of salvation and the connection of the salvation to the Holy Spirit. To double check my answer please refer to the Assemblies of God's Fundamental Truths, especially points 7 and 8.

First, the whole process obviously begins with a person repenting and trusting the Lord Jesus as his or her Savior. Then, subsequent to that, this same person should expect and earnestly seek to experience the baptism of the Holy Spirit. Please note, I do not believe this experience is guaranteed, so it might be possible for a person who is saved to not experience it. It is at this point that tongues come into the picture, Classical Pentecostals hold that the initial physical evidence of experiencing the baptism of the Holy Spirit is speaking in tongues. Though this type of speaking in tongues is similar to the gift of tongues discussed in 1 Corinthians, it is actually different in purpose and use.

So when we talk about Pentecostals having this gift, they might in fact state that in a number of cases it is not the gifts of tongues, but rather it is the initial physical evidence of the baptism of the Holy Spirit.

That kind of changes the question to why do we not have this initial physical evidence for the baptism of the Holy Spirit? We would agree very much with our Pentecostal friends that people do repent and trust the Lord Jesus as their Savior. But, in light of verses like 1 Corinthians 12:13, we believe that the baptism of the Holy Spirit is not something that we should seek subsequent to being justified by the Lord Jesus. Rather the baptism of the Holy Spirit is something that occurs simultaneously to every believer at conversion. It is an objective salvation fact every believer benefits from not an experience that comes later that we may or may not receive. The initial physical evidence, the most controversial portion of the Classical Pentecostal position, is something that we do not see as having biblical warrant. We do not believe that a person needs to speak in tongues to give evidence of having received the baptism of the Holy Spirit. So that is why you will see many Pentecostals speaking in tongues, but we do not.

Prophets today?

Here is another question left over from the Live Question and Answer night on September 29: Are there still prophets today?

In pondering this question I think we need to keep a few things in mind as we move toward an answer. First, in the Old Testament there appeared to be an office of prophet (see for example 1 Samuel 10:11). There are also a number of books in the Old Testament that we refer to as the Prophets. It has been suggested that the Old Testament prophets did basically two things. One, they were involved in foretelling, meaning they revealed new information that was not previously known. I was told, though I cannot find a footnote to confirm it that about 10% of the prophecy was foretelling. The second thing the prophets did was to forth telling or remind people of things that had already been said. This function could account for 90% of what is called prophecy in the Old Testament.

Second, in looking at 1 Corinthians 14, specifically verse 3, it seems like the role or function of the prophet was to speak to people for their strengthening, encouragement, and comfort. They did not necessarily speak with divine authority according to 1 Corinthians 14:29. Other people, most likely the elders of the church, would evaluate and weigh what had been shared.

Third, the book of Revelation appears to share with the church a message about how the future will unfold. At the end of Revelation 22, the following is stated in verse 18 and 19:

I warn everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book: if anyone adds to them, God will add to him the plagues described in this book, ¹⁹and if anyone takes away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God will take away his share in the tree of life and in the holy city, which are described in this book.

It seems like God believes He has spoken a final word to us in Revelation, and there is not a need for the church to receive a further divinely authoritative message concerning the future. We may like to have more information, but God does not seem to be of the same conviction on the matter.

Putting those three matters into the mix, here is how I would answer the question.  In 1 Corinthians 14:1 and 14:39 Paul speaks highly of prophecy that would lead me to think that there could very well be a role for prophecy or a prophet today. With the statement in Revelation, I would hold that the idea of prophecy being something new and authoritatively binding on church is not possible. Foretelling would seem to be something that came to an end. But the idea of forth telling, especially in the sense of forth telling to encourage and strength people seems valid and within the biblical message. In that sense I do believe that we could have people today who could serve as prophets or speak prophetically in that they could remind us of God’s truth, renewing our minds to a heavenly or divine perspective on issues. In many ways I can see that we need that type of prophetic voice as we seek to operate in a changing culture.

Another Live Q&A Response

Here is another question from the Live Question and Answer Night on September 29:

What is meant by believing children as far as being eligible to be an elder?

This question refers to a phrase in Titus 1:6. The whole verse reads this way in the English Standard Version:

If anyone is above reproach, the husband of one wife, and his children are believers and not open to the charge of debauchery or insubordination.

To answer the question we need to understand what is meant by the Greek word, πιστός, which is translated as “believers” in the ESV cited above. That particular Greek would can be translated in the active sense of believing, or as in three older English versions, the King James, the Geneva Bible, and the Douay Rheims, and three newer English versions, the New King James, the New English Translation, and the Holman Christian Standard Bible, it can be translated in a passive sense of  being faithful. To answer the question we need to reach a conclusion about what is the correct way to translate that word – are children to be believers or faithful?

First Timothy 3:4 seems to be a parallel verse to Titus 1:6. First Timothy 3:4 reads:

He must manage his own household well, with all dignity keeping his children submissive.

The emphasis of 1 Timothy 3:4 is on the elder’s ability to manage his household well, which is expressed by his ability to keep his children under control. The children are mentioned in relation to the father’s functioning, which makes sense in that list of characteristics in 1 Timothy 3 are to help Timothy determine in a man is qualified to be an elder. In the English versions that translate πιστός in an active sense in Titus 1:6, the focus would seem to shift from the father onto the child. That does not seem to fit the way the rest of characteristics are understood.

According to Greek scholars it is “not easy” to determine the correct interpretation of πιστός in Titus 1:6. The reason for that is the word πιστός has both an active and a passive sense in the places it is used. Having said that, from analyzing the usage of πιστός in the writings of the Septuagint, Philo, Josephus, the apostolic fathers, and the New Testament, a scholar named Norris C. Grubbs concluded that the vast majority of usages of πιστός were passive. He wrote, “Approximately 92 percent of the usages of πιστός, a total of 241 occurrences, display the passive idea of ‘faithful,’ trustworthy,’ or ‘reliable.’”[1]

Paul’s usage of πιστός in the Pastoral Epistles varies from that percentage of usage. Of the 33 times Paul used πιστός, 17 of those usages were in the Pastorals. Six of the 11 times Paul used πιστός in 1 Timothy, he used it in an active sense. In light of that, it should not be surprising to learn that many commentators agree with an active translation.

Taking all of that data into consideration, I believe, in contrast to the majority of the English translations, it would be best to adopt a passive translation of πιστός in Titus 1:6 for the following reasons. First, when Paul used πιστός a second time in the Titus 1 list in verse 9 and in a similar list in 1 Timothy 3:11, it is normally translated in a passive sense. The usage in Titus 1:9 is not as strong a reason for concluding that Titus 1:6 should be understood passively, given that in verse 9, πιστός is modifying word (λόγος), rather than speaking in reference to a person. But in 1 Timothy 3:11, Paul clearly used πιστός with respect to describing a person.

Another reason in support of the passive reading would be the structure of Titus 1:6. An active reading of πιστός would suggest that Paul is first addressing the eternal status of the child, and then the next qualifier emphasizes the children’s behavior. If that was correct, in the words of Homer Kent Jr., “It is possible for one’s children to be professed Christians but still be a source of embarrassment to their fathers because of unrighteous lives.”[2] Such an understanding would seem to be in conflict with Paul’s understanding of what God’s grace does in a person’s life according to Titus 2:11-14. Titus 2:12 suggests that not only does God’s grace saved believers, but God’s grace also has the ongoing task of teaching them to live righteously. The active translation in Titus 1:6 would seem to make it a very real prospect for children to be distant from the ongoing task of grace in their lives. That would not seem to fit the thrust of Paul’s message in Titus as a whole. A passive understanding would fit the overall context better, and would render Titus 1:6 as stating the behavior of children in both positive and negative terms.

To try and answer the question, the issue of Titus 1:6 is not so much about children being believers, as it does a father, who is being considered as an elder, operating as a dad in a way that his children are well behaved. I do not think that means that they are perfect, but as we look at how a dad operates with his children does he teach them to be responsible, empathetic, and respectful. Does he discipline and correct them or does he just punish them or perhaps worse, ignore them? To be an elder involves managing and leading God’s people. Paul, inspired by the Holy Spirit, is telling us a way we can discern if a man is ready for that responsibility is to look at how he is doing as a father and whether or not his children are behave and function.

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[1]Norris C. Grubbs, “The Truth about Elders and Their Children: Believing or Behaving in Titus 1:6?” Faith and Mission 22, no. 2 (Spring 2005): 8.

[2]Homer A. Kent, Jr., The Pastoral Epistles: Studies in I and II Timothy and Titus (Chicago: Moody, 1958), 220.